The PMI Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM®) is an entry-level project management qualification. This course is intended for those with little or no project experience. Attending the CAPM® online assessment test is the first step toward project management success.
The Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM®) course provides beginners with an understanding of fundamental project management principles, five process groups, and 10 knowledge areas defined by the Project Management Institute (PMI)®. Your CAPM® certification demonstrates that you have a fundamental understanding of project management principles, terminologies, and processes.
The CAPM practice tests given below are realistic representations of the real thing. You can take this CAPM sample test as many times as you like to see where you stand after each module. Try it right now! With the CAPM exam prep, you can change the way you learn.
Q #1) Which of the following is one of the Tools and Techniques of Control Quality Process?
A. Cost-benefit analysis
B. Meetings
C. Process Analysis
D. Inspection
Solution: This question is based on the Control Quality Process in the Project Quality Management Knowledge Area. We will follow the process of elimination to select the correct answer.
Cost-benefit analysis and meetings are the techniques that are used for the Plan Quality Management process. Process analysis is used in Perform Quality Assurance process and is used to identify the required improvements.
Thus, it is safe to eliminate the first three choices, as they do not fall in the correct process group. We are left with the last choice, which is Inspection. Inspection is conducted to determine if the delivered product meets the required quality standards.
Therefore the correct answer is D.
Q #2) Which technique is used for determining the reason for variances between the baseline and actual performance?
A. Variance analysis
B. An organizational process asset
C. Earned value
D. Pareto Chart
Solution: Again, we will follow the process of elimination. A Pareto chart is a quality tool, organizations process asset is not a technique – it is an asset, and earned value measures the work performed on the project.
Variance analysis is the technique used in the Control Scope process in Project Scope Management to find the cause and variance between the agreed baseline and the actual performance.
Therefore the correct answer is A.
Q #3) What is the schedule variance of a project if the earned value is 899 and the planned value is 1099?
A. 200.000
B. – 200.000
C. 0.889
D. 1.125
Solution: This answer requires direct application of the Schedule variance formula.
As you may recall, Schedule Variance (SV) = Earned Value – Planned Value. Therefore schedule variance comes out to be
SV = 899-1099 = -200
Therefore the correct answer is B.
Q #4) You have just started a project for a retailer. The Project team members report that they are 20% percent complete with the project. You spent $5,000 of the $75,000 budget allocated for the project.
Calculate the earned value for this project?
A. 7%
B. $15,000
C. $75,000
D. Not enough information to know
Solution: Earned value, in this case, would be the budget allocated multiplied by the % of the project completed.
It comes out to be 20% X $75,000 = $15,000.
Therefore the correct answer is B.
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Q #5) Based on the information provided in the table below, determine which task is on Schedule and within the budget?
Task Planned Value (PV) Actual Value (AV) Earned Value (EV)
A 100 150 100
B 200 200 200
C 300 250 280
A. Task A
B. Task B
C. Task C
D. Unable to determine, Insufficient information
Solution: Schedule Performance Index (SPI) will help to determine if the project is on Schedule. SPI more significant than 1.0 means the project is ahead of the Schedule & when SPI is exactly 1.0 means the project is on Schedule, and less than 1.0 means that the project is behind Schedule.
Cost Performance Index (CPI) will help to determine if the project is within your budget or not. CPI greater than 1.0 means the project is under planned cost, CPI exactly 1.0 means that the project is within the planned cost, and less than 1.0 means the project is over the planned cost.
SPI = EV / PV and CPI = EV / AC
When SPI and CPI are calculated for all tasks, only Task B has SPI = 1 and CPI = 1. Hence Task B is on Schedule and within the budget.
Therefore the correct answer is B.
Q #6) Which of the following describes a work breakdown structure?
A. It is a statistical technique to measure quality
B. Is an environmental factor
C. It is a hierarchical decomposition of the total scope into manageable components
D. the resource requirement
Solution: By definition, a WBS or work breakdown structure breaks down the project deliverables and works more into manageable chunks or components.
Therefore the correct answer is C.
Q #7) Which of the following is NOT one of the tools and techniques used in the Sequence Activities Process?
A. Leads and Lags
B. Dependency determination
C. Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM)
D. Critical Chain method
Solution: Out of the options provided, the Critical chain method is one of the tools and techniques for Develop a Scheduled Process, and hence it is not used in the Sequence Activities Process. Rest 3 options are used in the Sequence Activities Process as mentioned in the PMBOK Guide.
Therefore the correct answer is D.
Q #8) Which of the following process does not fall under the Planning process group?
A. Control Costs
B. Plan resource management
C. Plan procurement management
D. Develop Schedule
Solution: Recall the mapping of processes- process groups –knowledge areas. All the options b,c, and d describe some planning activity. However, option a is about cost control and should be a part of the Monitoring and Controlling process group.
Therefore the correct answer is A.
Q #9) You have been appointed as the Project manager of an upcoming internal project. Who will provide you with the Statement of Work (SOW)?
A. Customer
B. Project Sponsor
C. Project Manager provides SOW
D. None of the above
Solution: SOW is one of the inputs for Develop Project Charter process. If the project is external, the SOW is provided by the customer. However, if the project is internal, the Project Sponsor or Project Initiator provides the SOW.
Therefore the correct answer is B.
Q #10) Which of the following is an input for Plan Stakeholder Management Process?
A. Stakeholder Register
B. Analytical Techniques
C. Issue Log
D. Change requests
Solution: A stakeholder register contains the details related to the identified stakeholders of a project along with their extent of the potential influence of each stakeholder, their contact information, main expectations, etc.
The other options are either tools and techniques or outputs of various processes in the Project stakeholder management Knowledge Area.
Therefore the correct answer is A.
Q #11) What is a risk register?
A. Contains information about all stakeholders
B. Contains project charter
C. Contains project scope
D. Contains information related to identified risks – E.g., identified risks, the root cause of risks, risk priority, risk analysis, response, etc.
Solution: Risk register is an Input for the Plan Risk Responses process. Option a, b and c are not a part of the Project Risk Management Knowledge area and can be eliminated from the correct answer choices.
Therefore the correct answer is D.
Q #12) Which of the following factors do NOT affect the choice of communication technology used?
A. The urgency of the need for information
B. Availability of technology
C. Stakeholder register
D. Ease of use
Solution: Choosing an appropriate communication technology is a part of the Plan communication management process. Depending on the project, the choice of communication technology will vary.
For Example, a project with an external customer may require more formal communication versus an internal project, which may have relaxed, and more casual communication technology. Out of all the options provided, stakeholder register options are out of place – the stakeholder register contains the information of all the project stakeholders.
Therefore the correct answer is C.
Q #13) Virtual teams model makes it possible.
A. For specialists and teams not geographically collocated to work together on a project.
B. To include people with mobility limitations to work and collaborate.
C. Form teams of people in different countries, time zone, and shifts.
D. All of the above
Solution: Virtual teams provide various advantages over the traditional co-located team model. All the options mentioned in the question are all the listed benefits of having a virtual team.
Therefore the correct answer is D.
Q #14) Which of the following is NOT a project document?
A. Agreement
B. Process documentation
C. Stakeholder Register
D. All the above are not project documents
Solution: Options a, b and c are examples of project documents created, maintained, and updated during the project life cycle. In fact, option d is incorrect here.
Therefore the correct answer is D.
Q #15) What is the difference between a Project management plan and Project documents?
A. Project management plan is the primary document to manage the project, and the other documents called project documents are also additionally used.
B. There is no difference. They are the same.
C. Insufficient information
D. None of the above
Solution: The difference between the project management plan and other documents has been made clear in the Project Integration Management Knowledge area. Essentially all the other (project documents) are not a part of the project management plan.
Therefore the correct answer is A.
Summary
CAPM® certification is currently recognized as the international standard for Project Managers and a beneficial credential for most industries and organizations worldwide. According to a Project Management Institute (PMI) research, project management would create 15.7 million new employment by 2020. The CAPM® certification will provide you with a distinct identity in the job market. Earn the CAPM® certification with SPOTO 100% Real CAPM Exam Dumps!
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